新高考1卷英语试卷考查学科关键能力，服务落实“双减”政策，落实立德树人根本任务，发挥学科育人功能。今天小编整理了2022年新高考1卷英语试卷及答案供大家参考，一起来看看吧!

2022年新高考1卷英语试卷

绝密★启用前 试卷类型：A

2022年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试

英语

本试卷共10页，满分120分。考试用时120分钟。

注意事项：1. 答卷前，考生务必用黑色字迹例笔或签字笔将自己的姓名、考生号、考场号和座位号填写在答题卡上。用2B铅笔将试卷类型(A)填涂在答题卡相应位置上。将条形码横贴在答题卡右上角“条形码粘贴处”。因笔试不考听力，选择题从第二部分的“阅读”开始，试题序号从“21”开始。

2. 作答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用2B船笔把答题卡上对应题目选项的答案信息点涂黑;如需改动，用像皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案，答案不能答在试卷上。

3. 非选择题必须用黑色字迹钢笔或签字笔作答，答案必须写在答题卡各题目指定区域内相应位置上：如而改动，先则掉原来的答案，然后再写上新的答案;不准使用铅笔和涂改液。不按以上要求作答的答案无效。

4. 考生必须保持答题卡的整洁。考试结束后，将试卷和答题卡一并交回。

第二部分 阅读(共两节，满分50分)

第一节(共15小题：每小题2.5分，满分37.5分)

阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。

A

Grading Policies for Introduction to Literature

Grading Scale

90-100, A; 80-89, B; 70-79, C; 60-69, D; Below 60, E.

Essays (60%)

Your four major essays will combine to form the main part of the grade for this course: Essay 1 = 10%; Essay 2-15%; Essay 3= 15%; Essay 4 = 20%.

Group Assignments (30%)

Students will work in groups to complete four assignments (作业) during the course. All the assignments will be submitted by the assigned date through Blackboard, our online learning and course management system.

Daily Work/In-Class Writings and Test/Group Work/Homework (10%)

n Class activities will vary from day to day, but students must be ready to complete short in-class writings or tests drawn directly from assigned readings or notes from the previous class’ lecture/discussion, so it is important to take careful notes during class. Additionally, from time to time I will assign group work to be completed in class or short assignments to be completed at home, both of which will be graded.

Late Work

An essay not submitted in class on the due date will lose a letter grade for each class period it is late. If it is not turned in by the 4th day after the due date, it will earn a zero. Daily assignments not completed during class will get a zero. Short writings missed as a result of an excused absence will be accepted.

21. Where is this text probably taken from?

A. A textbook. B. An exam paper.

C. A course plan. D. An academic article.

22. How many parts is a student’s final grade made up of?

A. Two. B. Three. C. Four. D. Five.

23. What will happen if you submit an essay one week after the due date?

A. You will receive a zero. B. You will lose a letter grade.

C. You will be given a test. D. You will have to rewrite it.

B

Like most of us, I try to be mindful of food that goes to waste. The arugula (芝麻菜) was to make a nice green salad, rounding out a roast chicken dinner. But I ended up working late. Then friends called with a dinner invitation. I stuck the chicken in the freezer. But as days passed, the arugula went bad. Even worse, I had unthinkingly bought way too much; I could have made six salads with what I threw out.

In a world where nearly 800 million people a year go hungry, “food waste goes against the moral grain,” as Elizabeth Royte writes in this month’s cover story. It’s jaw-dropping how much perfectly good food is thrown away - from “ugly” (but quite eatable) vegetables rejected by grocers to large amounts of uneaten dishes thrown into restaurant garbage cans.

Producing food that no one eats wastes the water, fuel, and other resources used to grow it. That makes food waste an environmental problem. In fact, Royte writes, “if food waste were a country, it would be the third largest producer of greenhouse gases in the world.”

If that’s hard to understand, let’s keep it as simple as the arugula at the back of my refrigerator. Mike Curtin sees my arugula story all the time - but for him, it’s more like 12 boxes of donated strawberries nearing their last days. Curtin is CEO of DC Central Kitchen in Washington. D.C., which recovers food and turns it into healthy meals. Last year it recovered more than 807,500 pounds of food by taking donations and collecting blemished (有瑕疵的) produce that otherwise would have rotted in fields. And the strawberries? Volunteers will wash, cut, and freeze or dry them for use in meals down the road.

Such methods seem obvious, yer so often we just don’t think. “Everyone can play a part in reducing waste, whether by not purchasing more food than necessary in your weekly shopping or by asking restaurants to not include the side dish you won’t eat.” Curtin says.

24. What does the author want to show by telling the arugula story?

A. We pay little attention to food waste. B. We waste food unintentionally at times.

C. We waste more vegetables than meat. D. We have good reasons for wasting food.

25. What is a consequence of food waste according to the text?

A. Moral decline. B. Environmental harm.

C. Energy shortage. D. Worldwide starvation.

26. What does Curtin’s company do?

A. It produces kitchen equipment. B. It turns rotten arugula into clean fuel.

C. It helps local farmers grow fruits. D. It makes meals out of unwanted food.

27. What does Curtin suggest people do?

A. Buy only what is needed. B. Reduce food consumption.

C. Go shopping once a week. D. Eat in restaurants less often.

C

The elderly residents (居民) in care homes in London are being given hens to look after to stop them feeling lonely.

The project was dreamed up by a local charity (慈善组织) to reduce loneliness and improve elderly people’s wellbeing. It is also being used to help patients suffering dementia, a serious illness of the mind. Staff in care homes have reported a reduction in the use of medicine where hens are in use.

Among those taking part in the project is 80-year-old Ruth Xavier. She said: “I used to keep hens when I was younger and had to prepare their breakfast each morning before I went to school.

“I like the project a lot. I am down there in my wheelchair in the morning letting the hens out and down there again at night to see they’ve gone to bed.

“It’s good to have a different focus. People have been bringing their children in to see the hens and residents come and sit outside to watch them. I’m enjoying the creative activities, and it feels great to have done something useful.”

There are now 700 elderly people looking after hens in 20 care homes in the North East, and the charity has been given financial support to roll it out countrywide.

Wendy Wilson, extra care manager at 60 Penfold Street, one of the first to embark on the project, said: “Residents really welcome the idea of the project and the creative sessions. We are looking forward to the benefits and fun the project can bring to people here.”

Lynn Lewis, director of Notting Hill Pathways, said: “We are happy to be taking part in the project. It will really help connect our residents through a shared interest and creative activities.”

28. What is the purpose of the project?

A. To ensure harmony in care homes. B. To provide part-time jobs for the aged.

C. To raise money for medical research. D. To promote the elderly people’s welfare.

29. How has the project affected Ruth Xavier?

A. She has learned new life skills. B. She has gained a sense of achievement.

C. She has recovered her memory. D. She has developed a strong personality.

30. What do the underlined words “embark on” mean in paragraph 7?

A. Improve. B. Oppose. C. Begin. D. Evaluate.

31. What can we learn about the project from the last two paragraphs?

A. It is well received. B. It needs to be more creative.

C. It is highly profitable. D. It takes ages to see the results.

D

Human speech contains more than 2,000 different sounds, from the common “m”and “a” to the rare clicks of some southern African languages. But why are certain sounds more common than others? A ground-breaking, five-year study shows that diet-related changes in human bite led to new speech sounds that are now found in half the world’s languages.

More than 30 years ago, the scholar Charles Hockett noted that speech sounds called labiodentals, such as “f” and “v”, were more common in the languages of societies that ate softer foods. Now a team of researchers led by Damián Blasi at the University of Zurich, Switzerland, has found how and why this trend arose.

They discovered that the upper and lower front teeth of ancient human adults were aligned (对齐), making it hard to produce labiodentals, which are formed by touching the lower lip to the upper teeth. Later, our jaws changed to an overbite structure (结构), making it easier to produce such sounds.

The team showed that this change in bite was connected with the development of agriculture in the Neolithic period. Food became easier to chew at this point. The jawbone didn’t have to do as much work and so didn’t grow to be so large.

Analyses of a language database also confirmed that there was a global change in the sound of world languages after the Neolithic age, with the use of “f” and “v” increasing remarkably during the last few thousand years. These sounds are still not found in the languages of many hunter-gatherer people today.

This research overturns the popular view that all human speech sounds were present when human beings evolved around 300,000 years ago. “The set of speech sounds we use has not necessarily remained stable since the appearance of human beings, but rather the huge variety of speech sounds that we find today is the product of a complex interplay of things like biological change and cultural evolution,” said Steven Moran, a member of the research team.

32. Which aspect of the human speech sound does Damián Blasi’s research focus on?

A. Its variety. B. Its distribution.

C. Its quantity. D. Its development.

33. Why was it difficult for ancient human adults to produce labiodentals?

A. They had fewer upper teeth than lower teeth.

B. They could not open and close their lips easily.

C. Their jaws were not conveniently structured.

D. Their lower front teeth were not large enough.

34. What is paragraph 5 mainly about?

A. Supporting evidence for the research results.

B. Potential application of the research findings.

C. A further explanation of the research methods.

D. A reasonable doubt about the research process.

35. What does Steven Moran say about the set of human speech sounds?

A. It is key to effective communication. B. It contributes much to cultural diversity.

C. It is a complex and dynamic system. D. It drives the evolution of human beings.

第二节(共5小题：每小题2.5分。满分12.5分)

阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。

Fitness Magazine recently ran an article titled “Five Reasons to Thank Your Workout Partner.” One reason was: “You’ll actually show up if you know someone is waiting for you at the gym,” while another read: “ 36 ” With a workout partner, you will increase your training effort as there is a subtle (微妙) competition.

So, how do you find a workout partner?

First of all, decide what you want from that person. 37 Or do you just want to be physically fit, able to move with strength and flexibility? Think about the exercises you would like to do with your workout partner.

You might think about posting what you are looking for on social media, but it probably won’t result in a useful response. 38 If you plan on working out in a gym, that person must belong to the same gym.

My partner posted her request on the notice board of a local park. Her notice included what kind of training she wanted to do, how many days a week and how many hours she wanted to spend on each session, and her age. It also listed her favorite sports and activities, and provided her phone number. 39

You and your partner will probably have different skills. 40 Over time, both of you will benefit-your partner will be able to lift more weights and you will become more physically fit. The core (核心) of your relationship is that you will always be there to help each other.

A. Your first meeting may be a little awkward.

B. A workout partner usually needs to live close by.

C. You'll work harder if you train with someone else.

D. Do you want to be a better athlete in your favorite sport?

E. How can you write a good "seeking training partner" notice?

F. Just accept your differences and learn to work with each other.

G. Any notice for a training partner should include such information.

第三部分 语言运用(共两节，满分30分)

第一节(共15小题：每小题1分，满分15分)

阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。

My husband, our children and I have had wonderful camping experiences over the past ten years.

Some of our 41 are funny, especially from the early years when our children were little. Once, we 42 along Chalk Creek. I was 43 that our 15-month-old boy would fall into the creek (小溪). I tied a rope around his waist to keep him near to our spot. That lasted about ten minutes. He was 44 , and his crying let the whole campground know it. So 45 tying him up, I just kept a close eye on him. It 46 -he didn’t end up in the creek. My three-year-old, however, did.

Another time, we rented a boat in Vallecito Lake. The sky was clear when we 47 , but storms move in fast in the mountains, and this one quickly 48 our peaceful morning trip. The 49 picked up and thunder rolled. My husband stopped fishing to 50 the motor. Nothing. He tried again. No 51 . We were stuck in the middle of the lake with a dead motor. As we all sat there 52 , a fisherman pulled up, threw us a rope and towed (拖) us back. We were 53 .

Now, every year when my husband pulls our camper out of the garage, we are filled with a sense of 54 , wondering what camping fun and 55 we will experience next.

41. A. ideas B. jokes C. memories D. discoveries

42. A. camped B. drove C. walked D. cycled

43. A. annoyed B. surprised C. disappointed D. worried

44. A. unhurt B. unfortunate C. uncomfortable D. unafraid

45. A. due to B. instead of C. apart from D.as for

46. A. worked B. happened C. mattered D. changed

47. A. signed up B. calmed down C. checked out D. headed off

48. A. arranged B. interrupted C. completed D. recorded

49. A. wind B. noise C. temperature D. speed

50. A. find B. hide C. start D. fix

51. A. luck B. answer C. wonder D. signal

52. A. patiently B. tirelessly C. doubtfully D. helplessly

53. A. sorry B. brave C. safe D. right

54. A. relief B. duty C. pride D. excitement

55. A. failure B. adventure C. performance D. conflict

第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分，满分15分)

阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。

The Chinese government recently finalized a plan to set up a Giant Panda National Park (GPNP). 56 (cover) an area about three times 57 size of Yellowstone National Part, the GPNP will be one of the first national park in the country. The plan will extend protection to a significant number of areas that 58 (be) previously unprotected, bringing many of the existing protected areas for giant pandas under one authority 59 (increase) effectiveness and reduce inconsistencies in management.

After a three-year pilot period, the GPNP will be officially set up next year. The GPNP 60 (design) to reflect the guiding principle of "protecting the authenticity and integrity (完整性) of natural ecosystems, preserving biological diversity, protecting ecological buffer zones, 61 leaving behind precious natural assets (资产) for future generations". The GPNP's main goal is to improve connectivity between separate 62 (population)and homes of giant pandas, and 63 (eventual) achieve a desired level of population in the wild.

Giant pandas also serve 64 an umbrella species (物种), bringing protection to a host of plants and animals in the southwestern and northwestern parts of China. The GPNP is intended to provide stronger protection for all the species 65 live within the Giant Panda Range and significantly improve the health of the ecosystem in the area.

第四部分 写作(共两节、满分40分)

第一节(满分15分)

假定你是校广播站英语节目“Talk and Talk”的负责人李华，请给外教Caroline写邮件邀请她做一次访谈。内容包括：

1.节目介绍;

2.访谈的时间和话题。

注意：

1.写作词数应为80左右;

2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。

Dear Caroline,

________________________________________________________________________

________________________________________________________________________

Yours sincerely,

Li Hua

第二节(满分25分)

阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。

It was the day of the big cross-country run. Students from seven different primary schools in and around the small town were warming up and walking the route (路线) through thick evergreen forest.

I looked around and finally spotted David, who was standing by himself off to the side by a fence. He was small for ten years old. His usual big toothy smile was absent today. I walked over and asked him why he wasn't with the other children. He hesitated and then said he had decided not to run.

What was wrong? He had worked so hard for this event!

I quickly searched the crowd for the school's coach and asked him what had happened. "I was afraid that kids from other schools would laugh at him," he explained uncomfortably. "I gave him the choice to run or not, and let him decide."

I bit back my frustration (懊恼). I knew the coach meant well-he thought he was doing the right thing. After making sure that David could run if he wanted, I turned to find him coming towards me, his small body rocking from side to side as he swung his feet forward.

David had a brain disease which prevented him from walking or running like other children, but at school his classmates thought of him as a regular kid. He always participated to the best of his ability in whatever they were doing. That was why none of the children thought it unusual that David had decided to join the cross-country team. It just took him longer -that's all. David had not missed a single practice, and although he always finished his run long after the other children, he did always finish. As a special education teacher at the David faced and was school, I was familiar with the challenges the challenges proud of his strong determination.

注意：

1.续写词数应为150左右;

2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。

We sat down next to each other, but David wouldn’t look at me.

________________________________________________________________________

________________________________________________________________________

I watched as David moved up to starting line with the each other runners.

2022年新高考1卷英语试卷答案（部分）

1~20：略

21.C 22.B 23.A,(分值7.5)

24.B 25.B 26.D 27.A,(分值10)

28.D 29.B 30.C 31.A,(分值10)

32.D 33.C 34.A 35.C,(分值10)

36.C 37.D 38.B 39.G 40.F, (分值10)

41.C 42.A 43.D 44.C 45.B 46.A 47. D 48. B 49. A 50.C

51.A 52.D 53.C 54.D 55.B,(分值15)

56.Covering 57. the 58.were 59. to increase 60. is designed

61. and 62.populations 63. eventually 64.as 65.that,(分值15)

作文(15分)：略

续写(25分)：略

2022年高考英语(新高考I卷)命题点评

今年英语试卷落实立德树人根本任务，依据普通高中英语课程标准，结合学生生活和学习实际，围绕高考评价体系突出考查英语基础和关键能力，引导学生德智体美劳全面发展。既有服务“双减”工作的考虑，也体现高校选拔人才的要求。主要特点如下：

一、试题语篇选择严谨周全，体现立德树人、学科育人

语篇融入了弘扬中华传统文化、提升品德修养、关爱老人、自强不息以及科学探究等正能量内容。阅读B篇讲述节约粮食、珍惜劳动成果、保护大自然资源，阅读C篇，新闻报道老人院通过让老人养鸡的方式来避免他们因孤独而智力退化，阅读7选5，运动健身、强化运动意识，阅读D篇，研究探索话题。

二、试卷结构稳定，难度控制有度;试题设计细腻，兼顾基础性，聚焦核心能力

试卷的题型结构保持稳定，题目设计注重语言基础运用，也强调高阶思维要求，考点覆盖面广，各类题目梯度合理。阅读题目中，语篇、结构和推理判断等思维能力要求较高的题目比例有进一步提高，如阅读B篇，有关节约和有效利用粮食资源的话题，题目涉及信息组织与信息的组篇功能;阅读D篇等语篇虽然出现一定量长难句和较复杂的概念理解，但考生可以通过全局理解帮助推断解读。题目难度总体适中，这对双减形势下的教学有导向作用，能够促进课程标准要求的落实。

三、情境化设计突出，应用任务要求明确

题目的情境设计方面是一大亮点。完形填空和语法填空充分体现了基础知识在语篇语境中的运用，选项设计情境依存度高;阅读A篇，关于“文学入门”课程评分规则的应用文，是学生可能遇到的真实情境，应用性特别突出。阅读D篇，介绍人类语言发音的演变与人类的饮食变化之间的关联研究，题目涉及信息整合、句子理解、段落主旨，以及有关复杂概念的语句、段落、语篇意义的解读。阅读第二节是运动健身主题，解释人们在有同伴一起健身的诸多好处，语篇选择非常适合考题特点，文章结构严谨，连贯流畅，空格设计对情境因素考虑比较充分。

应用文写作的情境设定是：你作为学校广播站节目Talk and Talk的负责人，给外教写邮件邀请做一次访谈。内容要求有节目介绍、访谈时间和话题。内容有控制，也有考生自由发挥的空间。考生需要根据情境任务，分析写作目的、受众，将内容和这些审题思考做一定的关联，构思出必要点拓展内容，以恰当的语言、得体的语气完成交际任务。读后续写的主题是自强不息精神，前文情境充分，线索明显，续写段首句设计合理，学生需要充分解读故事主题、结构框架，创造性地续写出完整的故事。

总之，这是一份话题选材得当，题目设计用心，难度控制有度的试卷。